What is the "WORD" in John 1:1?

Summary

In this script, a discussion revolves around the interpretation of Jesus Christ as the 'Word' in the Bible, particularly in John 1:1 and 14. The conversation addresses the misconception of Jesus being God pre-existing with God, clarifying that the 'Word' symbolizes God's plan or idea that became flesh through Jesus. The dialogue references Catholic authorities and biblical texts, including First Peter and Galatians, to support the view that Jesus was not part of a triune Godhead but was a man chosen by God. The summary concludes with Jesus' own words from John 17, emphasizing the Father as the one true God.

Takeaways

• 📜 The script discusses the concept of Jesus Christ as 'the Word' in the Bible, particularly in the Book of John.
• 👤 It addresses the question of whether Jesus was just a man or also part of the Godhead, emphasizing the distinction between Jesus and God the Father.
• 🔍 The discussion references John 1:1 and 14 to show that while 'the Word' was with God, it was not the same as God, avoiding the idea of two gods.
• 🌟 The Catholic Church's perspective is presented, suggesting that 'the Word' represents an intellectual emanation from the Father, not a pre-existing Jesus.
• 📖 The script cites 1 Peter 1:20 to argue that Jesus was foreknown by God before the world began, but did not pre-exist.
• 🕰 It uses Galatians 4:4 to explain that Jesus was sent by God at the fullness of time, becoming flesh through birth from a woman.
• 📝 The term 'Word' is analyzed to mean a powerful expression of God, not implying that the Word is God Himself.
• 🔗 The script refutes the idea of the Trinity as unscriptural, focusing on Jesus' own words that identify the Father as the only true God.
• 🙏 It concludes by emphasizing the importance of following the teachings of Jesus and the Bible regarding the nature of God and Jesus' role.
• ✝️ The overall message is that Jesus, while holy and sent by God, is not to be considered part of a triune godhead but is distinct from God the Father.

Q & A

What does the term 'Word' refer to in the context of John 1:1?

In John 1:1, the term 'Word' refers to Jesus Christ, who is described as being with God and also being God. This is a theological concept that speaks to the divine nature of Jesus as part of the Christian belief in the Trinity.

How does the Catholic Church interpret the term 'Word' in John 1:1?

The Catholic Church interprets the term 'Word' as an intellectual emanation from the Father, suggesting that it represents Jesus as a plan or thought from God, rather than Jesus pre-existing with God.

What does the scripture in First Peter 1:20 indicate about Jesus' existence before the world began?

First Peter 1:20 indicates that Jesus was foreknown by God before the foundation of the world, implying that he was part of God's plan or idea, rather than having a pre-existence.

According to Galatians 4:4, when did Jesus become flesh?

Galatians 4:4 states that Jesus was sent by God and became flesh when 'the fullness of time had come,' which is understood to mean at the time of his birth to Mary.

What does Luke 1:37 say about the nature of the word from God?

Luke 1:37 declares that 'no word from God shall be void of power,' suggesting that the word of God is always effective and carries divine authority.

How is the term 'godhead' understood in the context of the provided script?

In the script, the term 'godhead' is not used to refer to a triune godhead as some Christian denominations teach, but rather to emphasize the belief in one true God, the Father, as taught in the Bible.

What does the script suggest about the divinity of Jesus Christ?

The script suggests that while Jesus is considered divine and part of the Godhead, he is not equated with the Father or the Holy Spirit in a way that suggests a triune godhead. Instead, Jesus is seen as the Son of God, sent by the Father.

How does the script explain the statement 'the Word was God' in John 1:1?

The script explains that 'the Word was God' is not meant to imply that the Word is God in essence, but rather that the Word possesses divine qualities and power, as an adjective describing the nature of the Word.

What is the significance of Jesus praying to the Father in John 17:1-3?

The significance of Jesus praying to the Father in John 17:1-3 is to highlight his submission to the Father and to emphasize the distinct roles within the Godhead, with the Father being the one true God.

What does the script imply about the teachings of the Church of Christ regarding the one true God?

The script implies that the Church of Christ teaches that the one true God is the Father, based on biblical teachings that emphasize the Father's role as the supreme deity, not a triune or trinitarian concept.